One house is 2 years old (rental) the other is 5 months old (Primary). The payments are basically the same. Their's no equaty in neither of them because the housing market went down. If I sell one, the value is less than what I owed the mortage company. What is the best thing to do: Pre-Foreclose, Foreclose or Deed-in-Lieu?If a person has two mortgages for different properties, but only can afford one, wich one will it be?
either way, this will explain. http://www.washingtonpost.com/wp-dyn/con鈥?/a>
No comments:
Post a Comment